Exercise 1. The task includes 50 questions, each of which has 4 possible answers. For each question, choose only one answer that you think is the most complete and correct. Enter the index of the selected answer in the answer matrix.
1. What science studies the structure, chemical composition and the life processes of the cell?
1) histology;
2) cytology;
3) embryology;
4) physiology.
Answer: 2
2. First described the cell:
1) R. Virchow;
2) T. Schwann;
3) Aristotle;
4) R. Hooke.
Answer: 4
3. Which feature is characteristic of living organisms in contrast to inanimate objects?
1) the ability to move;
2) the ability to change color;
3) metabolism and energy conversion;
4) the ability to collapse under the influence of the environment.
Answer: 3
4. The largest systematic unit in the series named is:
1) view;
2) family;
3) gender;
4th grade.
Answer: 4
5. The largest representatives of algae are found among:
1) green;
2) diatoms;
3) red;
4) brown.
Answer: 4
6. What adaptations to reduce water evaporation have been formed in coniferous plants in the process of evolution?
1) powerful crown;
2) developed root system;
3) wax coating and a small number of stomata;
4) the rapid movement of water through the vessels.
Answer: 3
7. Mutually beneficial cohabitation of fungi and plant roots is called:
1) meristem;
2) mycorrhiza;
3) metamorphosis;
4) mycelium.
Answer: 2
8. The inflorescence of wheat is called:
1) shield;
2) ear;
3) panicle;
4) a complex ear.
Answer: 4
9. Plants of the legume family are rich in proteins, as they:
1) have two cotyledons;
2) are pollinated both by insects and by wind;
3) effectively use solutions of mineral salts;
4) are in symbiosis with nodule bacteria.
Answer: 4
10. The matching of the shape of a flower to the body shape of a pollinating insect is an example:
1) aromorphosis;
2) idioadaptation;
3) degeneration;
4) modifications.
Answer: 2
11. There is a change of different owners in the development cycle:
1) roundworm;
2) white planaria;
3) earthworm;
4) liver fluke.
Answer: 4
12. The trachea are the respiratory organs of:
1) dragonflies;
2) pinworms;
3) crayfish;
4) oysters.
Answer: 1
13. Development with incomplete transformation is characteristic of:
1) beetles;
2) flies;
3) butterflies;
4) locusts.
Answer: 4
14. Vertebrate animals with a three-chambered heart, whose reproduction is closely related to water, are combined into a class:
1) annelids;
2) cartilaginous fish;
3) amphibians;
4) birds.
Answer: 3
15. The cerebellum is best developed in:
1) fish;
2) reptiles;
3) birds;
4) amphibians.
Answer: 3
16. The causative agent of malaria is:
1) malarial mosquito;
2) malarial plasmodium;
3) a person with malaria;
4) swamp air.
Answer: 2
17. The internal skeleton is the main feature:
1) vertebrates;
2) insects;
3) crustaceans;
4) arachnids.
Answer: 1
18. Mammals have populated areas inaccessible to reptiles due to:
1) features of the digestive system;
2) more developed nervous system;
3) warm-bloodedness and a high level of metabolism;
4) features of the musculoskeletal system.
Answer: 3
19. The ability of muscle cells to contract is provided by:
1) nucleic acids;
2) carbohydrates;
3) lipids;
4) proteins.
Answer: 4
20. The main sign of unconditioned reflexes:
1) individual;
2) short-term;
3) hereditary;
4) acquired.
Answer: 3
21. The breakdown of starch to glucose in the human body begins:
1) in the stomach;
2) in the oral cavity;
3) in the small intestine;
4) in the large intestine.
Answer: 2
22. The skin is called the sense organ because it contains:
1) sweat glands;
2) sebaceous glands;
3) hair roots;
4) receptors (pain, cold, etc.).
Answer: 4
23. The automatism of the heart is caused by impulses in:
1) cardiac muscle;
2) heart valves;
3) pericardial sac;
4) walls of the base of the aorta.
Answer: 1
24. Hydrogen bonds between polynucleotide strands in a DNA molecule are formed between:
1) complementary nitrogenous bases;
2) phosphoric acid residues;
3) amino acids;
4) deoxyribose residues.
Answer: 1
25. Iron is included in:
1) fibrin;
2) hemoglobin;
3) fibrinogen;
4) catalase.
Answer: 2
26. The liver performs a barrier function in the human body, since in it:
1) glucose is converted to glycogen;
2) bile is produced;
3) toxic substances are neutralized;
4) proteins can be converted into fats and carbohydrates.
Answer: 3
27. Cells most sensitive to lack of oxygen:
1) spinal cord;
2) brain;
3) liver and kidneys;
4) stomach and intestines.
Answer: 2
28. An example of modification changes is:
1) DNA nucleotide replacement;
2) the shape of the beak of a woodpecker;
3) Down's disease;
4) increase in cow's milk yield.
Answer: 4
29. Degeneration is considered:
Answer: 3
30. The restoration of the diploid set of chromosomes in the zygote occurs as a result of:
1) meiosis;
2) fertilization;
3) mitosis;
4) conjugation;
Answer: 2
31. The human parasympathetic nervous system:
1) enhances the work of the intestines;
2) increases the tone of skeletal muscles;
3) increases the concentration of sugar in the blood;
4) speeds up the pulse.
Answer: 1
32. The population is a structural unit:
1) detachment;
2) families;
3) kind;
4) view.
Answer: 4
33. What is the main limiting factor for plants in the steppe zone?
1) lack of moisture;
2) heat;
3) absence of humus;
4) intense ultraviolet radiation.
Answer: 1
34. The vaccine contains:
1) T and B lymphocytes;
2) blood cells;
3) antibodies;
4) weakened pathogens.
Answer: 4
35. The causative agent of AIDS is:
1) virus;
2) mold fungi;
3) bacteria;
4) unicellular algae.
Answer: 1
36. The main consumer of free nitrogen in the biosphere is:
1) swimming beetle;
2) birch;
3) elk;
4) nodule bacteria.
Answer: 4
37. Which process in the lancelet is carried out simultaneously with nutrition:
1) reproduction;
2) breathing;
3) selection;
4) regeneration.
Answer: 2
38. In agrocenosis, in contrast to biocenosis:
1) the only source of energy is the sun;
2) missing natural selection;
3) the leading role is played by artificial selection;
4) all elements absorbed by plants are returned to the soil.
Answer: 3
39. The action of what factor leads to a decrease in the species diversity of birds in the modern era?
1) abiotic;
2) biotic;
3) anthropogenic;
4) climatic.
Answer: 3
40. The formation of new species in nature occurs as a result of:
1) seasonal changes in nature;
2) interactions driving forces(factors) of evolution;
3) nature-forming human activities;
4) human environmental protection activities.
Answer: 2
1) pike - perch;
2) hermit crab - actinidia;
3) roundworm - a person;
4) spruce - birch.
Answer: 3
42. Natural selection as opposed to artificial selection:
1) contributes to the formation of signs useful for a person;
2) is carried out to create new varieties of plants;
3) is used to improve animal breeds;
4) occurs in nature all the time.
Answer: 4
43. What factor causes an increase in the frequency of human breathing during hard physical work?
1) blood saturation with carbon dioxide;
2) an increase in the number of red blood cells;
3) accumulation of lactic acid in the muscles;
4) removal of glycogen from the liver.
Answer: 1
44. Damage to the occipital lobe of the cortex hemispheres of the human brain leads to a loss of the ability to:
1) navigate with the help of vision;
2) distinguish sound;
3) coordinate movements;
4) feel the taste.
Answer: 1
45. Higher nervous activity person is characterized by:
1) the presence of unconditioned reflexes;
2) the formation of conditioned reflexes;
3) abstract thinking and speech;
4) elementary rational activity.
Answer: 3
1) trachea;
2) larynx;
3) esophagus;
4) alveoli.
Answer: 2
47. What cell structures during mitosis are distributed equally between the mother and daughter cells?
1) ribosomes;
2) mitochondria;
3) chloroplasts;
4) chromosomes.
Answer: 4
48. What cell structures are not organelles?
1) vacuoles;
2) leukoplasts;
3) mitochondria;
4) starch grains.
Answer: 4
49. Why has the number of rabbits brought to Australia increased many times over?
1) on new territory there were no predators;
2) dry climate prevails on the continent;
3) feed on herbaceous plants, food is in abundance;
4) they are characterized by care for offspring.
Answer: 1
50. In the process of evolution, the settlement of finches on different islands of the Galapagos archipelago led to:
1) the formation of new species;
2) aggravation of competition between individuals;
3) strengthening the action of abiotic factors;
4) aggravation of intraspecific struggle.
Answer: 1
Task 2. You are offered test tasks with three possible answers out of six possible. Enter the correct answers in the matrix, placing the numbers in order.
1. Select characteristics connective tissue:
1) lines the surface of the walls of the airways;
2) include blood, lymph, compact bone substance;
3) has contractility and conductivity;
4) forms a well-defined intercellular substance;
5) performs a transport function;
6) is part of the cerebral cortex.
A) 2, 4, 6.
B) 1, 2, 4.
C) 1, 4, 5.
D) 2, 4, 5.
Answer: G
2. Through the veins great circle circulatory system in humans, blood flows:
1) from the heart;
2) to the heart;
3) saturated with carbon dioxide;
4) saturated with oxygen;
5) faster than in capillaries;
6) slower than in capillaries.
A) 1, 3, 5.
B) 2, 3, 5.
C) 2, 3, 6.
D) 2, 4, 6.
Answer: B
3. Aromorphoses include:
1) the occurrence of a chord in animals;
2) the formation of five-fingered limbs in terrestrial vertebrates;
3) the presence of a four-chamber stomach in cows;
4) the mosquito has a piercing-sucking mouth apparatus;
5) the appearance of a green color of the integument in grasshoppers;
6) the emergence of sexual reproduction.
A) 1, 2, 6.
B) 1, 2, 5.
C) 1, 2, 4.
D) 1, 2, 3.
Answer: A
4. Select anthropogenic factors that affect the abundance and diversity of grasses in the meadow.
1) soil freezing;
2) application of mineral fertilizers;
3) mass reproduction of rodents;
4) plowing of sod cover;
5) dryness in summer;
6) grazing of cattle;
A) 1, 4, 6.
B) 1, 3, 5.
C) 2, 4, 6.
D) 2, 3, 6.
Answer: IN
5. The platygill fish include:
1) whale shark;
2) coelacanth;
3) katran;
4) megalodon;
5) perch;
6) smelt.
A) 1, 3, 4.
B) 1, 3, 5.
C) 1, 3, 6.
D) 1, 2, 3.
Answer: A
6. What is the structure and function of mitochondria?
1) split biopolymers to monomers;
2) are characterized by an anaerobic way of obtaining energy;
3) contain grains;
4) have enzymatic complexes on cristae;
5) oxidize organic substances with the formation of ATP;
6) two-membrane organelles.
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 3, 5.
C) 2, 4, 6.
D) 4, 5, 6.
Answer: G
7. Plants of the cruciferous family can be recognized by signs:
1) a four-membered flower;
2) a five-membered flower;
3) raceme inflorescence;
4) basket inflorescence;
5) the fruit is a pod or pod;
6) bean fruit.
A) 1, 3, 5.
B) 2, 3, 6.
C) 1, 3, 6.
D) 2, 3, 5.
Answer: A
8. The optical system of the eye consists of:
1) lens;
2) vitreous body;
3) optic nerve;
4) yellow spots of the retina;
5) cornea;
6) protein membrane.
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 2, 5.
C) 1, 2, 6.
D) 1, 2, 4.
Answer: B
9. Examples of general degeneration:
A) 1, 3, 5.
B) 2, 4, 6.
C) 2, 5, 6.
D) 1, 2, 5.
Answer: IN
10. Adaptations to life in the water, formed in the process of evolution in whales:
1) the transformation of the forelimbs into flippers;
2) breathing with oxygen dissolved in water;
3) breathing oxygen in the air;
4) streamlined body shape;
5) thick subcutaneous fat layer;
6) constant body temperature.
A) 1, 4, 5.
B) 1, 3, 5.
C) 2, 4, 6.
D) 2, 4, 5.
Answer: A
Task 3. You are offered test tasks in the form of judgments, with each of which you must either agree or reject.
1. Viruses are a cellular form of life.
2. Laminaria belongs to the department of Green algae.
3. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria settle on the roots of leguminous plants.
4. Succulents include sedum and young.
5. Stomata in aquatic plants are located on the upper side of the leaf.
6. In all invertebrates, fertilization is external.
7. The causative agent of malaria is the malarial Plasmodium.
8. Coelenterates have radial body symmetry.
9. The body of the white planaria is covered with bare mucous epithelium.
10. The heart of molluscs consists of a ventricle and an atrium.
11. The excretory system of spiders is represented by the kidneys.
12. Fish have three openings behind the pelvic fins - anal, genital and urinary.
13. The spine of a frog consists of 3 sections - cervical, trunk and sacral.
14. Birds do not distinguish colors.
15. An overactive thyroid slows down growth and development in children.
16. Exhaled air contains about 21% oxygen and 79% nitrogen.
17. The transformation of arterial blood into venous occurs in the capillaries of the systemic circulation.
18. The process of absorption and digestion of foreign particles is called phagocytosis.
19. The transition of human ancestors to upright posture contributed to increased metabolism.
20. The largest molecules in living cells are tRNA molecules.
Answer: Yes - 3,4,5,7,8,12,17,18. No-1,2,6,9,10,11,13,14,15,16,19,20
Task 4. You are offered test tasks that require compliance.
1. Establish a correspondence between the fungus and the type of food.
Mushroom:
A) penicillium;
B) phytophthora;
B) ergot;
D) yeast;
D) smut;
E) mushroom.
Answer: A-1, B-2, C-2, D-1, D-2, E-1
2. Establish a correspondence between the sign of animals and the systematic group to which it belongs.
Signs:
A) the notochord persists throughout life;
B) in the brain, departments are clearly distinguishable;
C) the nervous system is formed by a homogeneous tube;
D) most representatives have a notochord only in the early stages of development;
D) the skeleton of the head is absent;
E) are represented by a variety of appearance and structure of organisms.
Systematic group:
1) Skullless;
2) Vertebrates.
Answer: A-1, B-2, C-1, D-2, D-1, E-2
3. Establish a correspondence between the sign and the mode of regulation for which it is characteristic.
Feature:
A) the speed of carrying out information is relatively low;
B) is a more ancient form of interaction between cells and organs;
C) an evolutionarily later way of regulation;
D) is carried out by means of electrical impulses;
D) is carried out through chemical active substances entering the blood, lymph and tissue fluid;
E) the speed of carrying out information is relatively high.
Way of regulation:
1) nervous;
2) humoral.
Answer: A-2, B-2, C-1 D-1, D-2, E-1
4. Establish a correspondence between the cause of speciation and the method for which it is characteristic.
CAUSES
A) division of the range of the species;
B) the formation of a new population in the territory of the former habitat;
C) the stability of the range of the species;
D) expansion of the range;
E) the appearance of previously non-existing terrain barriers;
E) advance of the glacier.
SPECIATION
1) ecological
2) geographical
Answer: A-2, B-1 ,V-1, G-2, D-2, E-1
In contact with
1.. Living is different from non-living:
A) the composition of inorganic substances
C) metabolism
B) the presence of catalysts
D) the interaction of molecules with each other
2. The main substances in living organisms are:
A) Carbohydrates.
B) Vitamins.
C) Fats.
D) Proteins.
3. A biological system is called:
A) the union of homogeneous cells
C) several adjacent organs
B) organs of a living organism
D) any biological objects
4. Interspecies relations begin to appear:
A) At the biogeocenotic level.
B) At the population-species level.
C) At the organismal level.
D) At the biospheric level.
5. The subject of biology is:
A) The structure and functions of the body.
B) Natural phenomena.
C) Patterns of development and functioning of living systems.
D) The structure and functions of plants and animals.
6. In 1988, a 4-volume work by A.A. Sludsky and A. Bekenov was published:
A) "Flora of Kazakhstan".
B) "Reserves of Kazakhstan".
C) "Biological discoveries of Kazakhstan".
D) "Mammals of Kazakhstan"
7. Prokaryotes include:
A) plants
B) animals
C) mushrooms
D) bacteria and cyanobacteria
8. Organelles are found only in prokaryotes:
A) plastids
C) cell center
B) mitochondria
D) ribosomes
9. Ribosomes are involved in the synthesis of:
A) ATP
B) proteins
C) lipids
D) carbohydrates
10. Reproduction is a process: A) an increase in the number of cells;
C) reproduction of their own kind;
C) the development of organisms in the process of evolution;
D) complicating the structure and functions of organs
11. A set of sex chromosomes in men:
A) XX;
B) XY;
C) XO;
E) YY.
12. A cell is a structural and functional unit of a living thing, since:
A) the cell contains about 70 chemical elements;
C) all cell proteins are built from 20 amino acids;
C) processes of biological synthesis and decay are continuously going on in cells;
D) all living organisms, except viruses, are built from cells.
13. Type of cell division, as a result of which germ cells are formed:
A) Amitosis;
B) meiosis;
C) amitosis;
D) biocenosis.
14. At what cell division does the number of chromosomes not decrease?
A) mitosis;
B) mitosis and meiosis;
C) meiosis and amitosis;
D) meiosis.
15. Proteins - biological polymers, the monomers of which are:
A) nucleotides;
B) amino acids;
C) peptides;
D) monosaccharides.
16. What is the number of chromosomes in humans?
A) 46;
B) 25;
C) 47;
D) 48
17. Level, which is highest level organization of life
A) biospheric;
C) biogeocenotic;
C) population-species;
D) organism.
18. The core is:
A) two-membrane structure;
C) single-membrane structure;
C) non-membrane structure;
D) three-membrane structure.
19. Assimilation is a process:
A) catalysis;
B) decay
C) biosynthesis;
D) hydrolysis.
20. In reactions of decomposition of substances:
A) energy is accumulated;
C) energy does not change;
C) energy is released;
D) energy is conserved.
21. One DNA triplet contains information:
A) about the sequence of amino acids in the protein;
C) about one sign of the organism;
C) about one amino acid included in the protein chain;
E) about the beginning of the synthesis of i-RNA,
22. The number of stages in energy metabolism:
A) one;
At two;
C) three
D) four.
23. Autotrophic organisms receive energy:
A) due to organic substances synthesized from inorganic;
C) from ready-made organic substances;
C) due to the breakdown of inorganic substances;
D) due to the breakdown of water.
24. Does not apply to hormones:
A) insulin
B) oxytocin;
C) melanin;
D) progesterone.
25. Individual development organism is called:
A) phylogenesis;
B) ovogenesis;
C) metamorphosis;
D) ontogeny.
26. All flowering plants have:
A) double fertilization;
B) double pollination;
C) simple fertilization;
D) triple fertilization.
27. A fertilized egg is called:
A) a gamete
B) gastrula;
C) blastula;
D) zygote.
28. Nervous system, sensory organs, skin epithelium, tooth enamel are formed during organogenesis:
A) from the ectoderm;
B) from the mesoderm;
C) from the endoderm;
D) from the gastrula.
29. The ability of an organism to maintain the constancy of its structure and functionality at the proper level is called:
A) homeostasis;
B) irritability
C) ontogeny;
D) metabolism.
30. The final phase in mitosis is:
A) anaphase;
B) prophase;
C) telophase;
D) metaphase.
1C 16A
2C 17A
3A 18V
4С 19В
5V 20V
6D 21A
7D 22V
8D 23V
9C 24A
10A 25V
11D 26A
12C 27A
13C 28A
14V 29D
15D 30D
Test on the topic: "Biology is the science of life ..."
1. General biology is a science:
A) about the patterns of life at all levels of its organization, the mechanisms of biological processes
and phenomena, ways of development of the organic world and its rational use.
B) about plants
C) about animals
2. Among the named levels of organization of the living, remove the excess: molecular, organismal,
atomic, biospheric, elementary particles, cellular.
3. Correlate to what level of organization the object corresponds:
Karelian birch
Leather
Hare
blood cell
Water
4. Find matches:
Metabolism
self-reproduction
Variability
Evolution
Heredity
Molecular
Cellular
Organ tissue
Organismic
population-species
ability to reproduce
Ability to develop
The ability to transmit their characteristics
The ability to absorb and release substances
Ability to adapt to environmental conditions
5. Correlate the property of a living system with a specific example:
A) hibernation in mammals;
B) the absorption of oxygen during respiration and the release of carbon dioxide;
C) growth of hybrid mycelium underground;
D) seasonal migrations (flights) of birds.
a) the ability to exchange substances, energy and information with the environment;
b) the ability to adapt to environmental conditions;
c) the ability to move;
d) the ability to reproduce according to the laws of heredity and variability.
6. List the properties of living organisms.
7. Name the levels of organization of living matter.
Test on the topic: "Cage"
A1. R. Hooke first saw under a microscope and described the cells:
1) protozoa
2) plugs
3) potato tubers
4) acne skin
A2. The main function of the lysosome in the cell is:
1) intracellular digestion
2) protein synthesis
3) the formation of ATP molecules
4) DNA replication
A3. Protein synthesis in a prokaryotic cell occurs:
1) on ribosomes in the nucleus
2) on ribosomes in the cytoplasm
3) in the cell wall
4) on the outer surface of the cytoplasmic membrane.
A4. Fungi are eukaryotic because:
1) in them the cell has a nucleus surrounded by a double membrane
2) they don't have tissues
3) reproduce by spores
4) their cells do not have plastids
A5. Protein synthesis occurs in:
1) granular endoplasmic reticulum
2) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
3) core
4) lysosomes
A6. Plant cells, unlike animal cells, are not capable of:
1) exercise breathing
2) to phagocytosis
3) carry out photosynthesis
4) to protein synthesis
A7. The cell has a flagellum at:
1) amoeba
2) infusoria shoes
3) trypanosomes
4) radiolarians
A8. The Golgi apparatus produces:
1) lysosomes
2) ribosomes
3) chloroplasts
4) mitochondria
A9. Mitochondria are absent in cells
1) bacteria
2) animals
3) mushrooms
4)plants
A10. Non-cellular life forms include:
1) bacteria
2) viruses
3) protozoa
4) mushrooms
A11. The ability to photosynthesis have:
1) protozoa
2) viruses
3) plants
4) mushrooms
A12. Plant cells, like animal cells:
1) have a core
2) have a cellulose cell wall
3) ways to phagocytosis
4) contain chloroplasts
A13. A plant cell is different from a fungal cell:
1) contains ribosomes
2) has a plasma membrane
3) contains plastids
4) contains vacuoles.
A14. A bacterial cell, unlike an animal cell:
1) does not contain ribosomes
2) does not have an outer membrane
3) has an outer membrane
4) has a cell wall
A15. Two-membrane organelles are:
1) ribosomes
2) endoplasmic reticulum
3) lysosomes
4) mitochondria
A16. The process of protein synthesis is carried out by cellular organelles, which are called:
1) lysosomes
2) chromosomes
3) chloroplasts
4) ribosomes
A17. Animal cells, unlike plant cells, are capable of:
1) protein synthesis
2) phagocytosis
3) metabolism
4) division
A18. Bacterial cells lack:
1) cytoplasm and outer membrane
2) DNA and RNA
3) mitochondria
4) ribosomes
A19. The cells of all living organisms are characterized by the presence of:
1) ribosome
2) mitochondria
3) plasma membrane
4) cell wall
A20. The channels of the endoplasmic reticulum are limited:
1) one membrane
2) polysaccharides
3) two membranes
4) protein layer
A21. Bacteria, unlike animal cells, have:
1) cell wall
2) core
3) specialized reproductive organs
4) cytoplasm
A22. The main postulates of the "cell theory" were formulated:
1) Brown, Creek
2) Hooke, Levenguk
3) Schwann, Schleiden
4) Darwin, Vavilov
A23. Two-membrane cell organelles that have folds of the inner membrane - cristae, are called:
1) plastids
2) Golgi apparatus
3) endoplasmic reticulum
4) mitochondria
A24. The non-cellular form of life is:
1) bacterium
2) amoeba cyst
3) blue-green algae
4) virus
A25. The organelles in which photosynthesis takes place are called:
1) mitochondria
2) ribosomes
3) vacuoles
4) plastids
A26. Does not apply to eukaryotes
1) infusoria shoe
2) Koch's wand
3) euglena green
4) man
A27. A double-membrane organelle found only in plant cells is called:
1) mitochondria
2) plastids
3) endoplasmic reticulum
4) ribosomes
A28. Cell center found in cells
1) only plants
2) only animals
3) all animals and lower plants
4) all organisms
A29. Bacteria, like plants, have:
1) mitochondria
2) chloroplasts
3) core
4) cell wall
A30. The system of single-membrane tanks and bubbles laced from them is called:
1) Golgi apparatus
2) endoplasmic reticulum
3) lysosome
4) centriole
A31. The kernel function is:
1) the formation of lysosomes and mitochondria
2) protection of the cell from harmful substances
3) synthesis and transport of proteins, fats and carbohydrates
4) storage of genetic information
A32. The term cell was introduced into science
1) Schwann
2) Schleiden
3) Hook
4) Leeuwenhoek
A33. Protein synthesis in a cell is carried out
1) mitochondria
2) plastids
3) ribosomes
4) lysosomes
A34. Ribosomes in eukaryotic cells are located
1) in the cytoplasm
2) in the cytoplasm on the membranes of granular EPS
3) in the cytoplasm, on the membranes of the granular EPS, in mitochondria and chloroplasts
4) on membranes of granular EPS
A35. Plant cells, unlike fungi, have:
1) chitinous cell wall
2) isolated core
3) plastids
4) the ability to reproduce
A36. The contents of the cell nucleus are called:
1) karyoplasm
2) cytoplasm
3) cell sap
4) hyaloplasm
A37. New mitochondria are formed in the cell as a result of
1) division and growth of other mitochondria
2) division and growth of lysosomes
3) synthesis occurring in the nucleolus
4) protrusion of the membranes of the Golgi apparatus
A38. Animal cells, unlike plant cells, have the ability to
1) protein synthesis
2) photosynthesis
3) phagocytosis
4) breathing
A39. Lysosomes are formed
1) by independent division
2) on EPS channels
3) on the nuclear membrane
4) on the Golgi apparatus
A40. What organelle binds the cell into a single whole, carries out the transport of substances, participates in
synthesis of proteins, fats, complex carbohydrates?
1) endoplasmic reticulum
2) outer cell membrane
3) Golgi complex
4) cytoplasm
A41. Every cell appears
1) from structureless intercellular substance
2) by dividing the mother cell
3) by spontaneous generation from organic substances
4) due to the cell walls of neighboring cells
A42. The ribosome contains
1) a section of DNA and proteins
2) tRNA and DNA section
3) rRNA and proteins
4) and - RNA, rRNA and DNA
A43. All living organisms have in common:
1) cellular structure
2) the ability to photosynthesis
3) the presence of a nucleus in the cell
4) ability to move
A44. The bacterial cell does not
1) ribosome
2) plasma membrane
3) isolated core
4) cytoplasm
A45. The cellular structure of all organisms indicates
1) the ability to unlimited growth
2) the presence of chloroplasts
3) unity of origin
4) the same set of organelles in the cell.
Test on the topic: "Photosynthesis"
1. Organisms that form organic substances only from organic ones:
1. heterotrophs 2. autotrophs
3.chemotrophs 4.mixotrophs
2. In the light phase of photosynthesis, the following occurs:
1.ATP formation 2.glucose formation
3. release of carbon dioxide 4. formation of carbohydrates
3. During photosynthesis, oxygen is formed, which is released in the process:
1.protein biosynthesis 2.photolysis
3. excitation of the chlorophyll molecule 4. compounds of carbon dioxide and water
4. As a result of photosynthesis, light energy is converted into:
1. thermal energy 2.Chemical energy inorganic
compounds
3. electrical energy thermal energy 4.chemical energy organic
compounds
5. Respiration in anaerobes in living organisms proceeds in the process:
1.oxygen oxidation 2.photosynthesis
3.fermentation 4.chemosynthesis
6. The end products of carbohydrate oxidation in the cell are:
1.ADP and water 2.ammonia and carbon dioxide
3.water and carbon dioxide 4.ammonia, carbon dioxide and water
7. On preparatory stage hydrolysis occurs when carbohydrates are broken down:
1. cellulose to glucose 2. proteins to amino acids
3.DNA to nucleotides 4.fats to glycerol and carboxylic acids
8. Enzymes provide oxygen oxidation:
1. digestive tract and lysosomes 2. cytoplasm
3.mitochondria 4.plastids
9. During glycolysis, 3 mol of glucose is stored in the form of ATP:
1. 240 kJ 2. 80 kJ 3. 160 kJ 4. 120 kJ
10. Two moles of glucose were exposed complete oxidation in the animal cell, while secreting
carbon dioxide:
1. 3 mol 2. 6 mol 3. 12 mol 4. 18 mol
11. In the process of chemosynthesis, organisms convert the energy of oxidation:
1.sulfur compounds 2. organic compounds
3.starch 4.fat
12. One gene corresponds to information about the molecule:
1. amino acids 2. starch
3.protein 4.nucleotide
13. The genetic code consists of three nucleotides, which means it:
1. specific 2. redundant
3.universal 4.triplet
14. Whole collection chemical reactions in a cell called
1) photosynthesis
2) chemosynthesis
3) fermentation
4) metabolism
15. If the nucleotide composition of DNA is ATTTCGCTAT, then the nucleotide composition of mRNA:
1.TAATSGTSUTA 2.UAAGTSGAUA
3.UAACGTSAUA 4.UAACGTSATA
Test on the topic "Metabolism and energy".
1. Where do the main stages of metabolism and energy occur?
1) in tissues 2) in cells 3) in lungs 4) in intestines
2. The breakdown and oxidation of some of the organic substances that enter the cell occurs during:
1) energy metabolism 3) chemical metabolism
2) plastic exchange 4) biological exchange
3. Energy metabolism is characterized by:
1) the transformation of the substances received into the cell into its own protoplasm
2) synthesis from amino acids, glucose and other substances inherent in the cell
3) ensuring the processes of growth and self-renewal of the cell
4) the breakdown of macromolecular compounds, accompanied by the release of energy
4. What inorganic substances are the starting points for photosynthesis?
1) hydrogen and oxygen
2) water and carbon dioxide 3) carbon and water
5. What process is part of energy metabolism?
1) glucose oxidation 2) dissolution of sodium salts in water 3) protein synthesis
6. During the reactions of the light phase of photosynthesis ...
1) electrons are excited by light
2) water is formed
3) carbon dioxide is wasted
7. Which of the following substances, formed in reactions caused by light,
needed for carbon fixation?
1) CO2 and H2O 3) ATP and H2O
2) ATP and NADP.H2 4) O2 and H2O
8. Where does the process of biological oxidation take place?
1) in mitochondria 3) in ribosomes
2) in chloroplasts 4) in lysosomes
9. During heavy physical exertion, muscle cells accumulate:
1) excess CO2 3) excess lactic acid
2) excess ATP 4) excess O2
10. How many glucose molecules must be broken down without the participation of oxygen to get 18
ATP molecules?
1)18 2) 38 3)9 4) 27
Test "Protein biosynthesis"
1. How many amino acids does 900 nucleotides encode
1) 100 2) 200 3) 300 4) 400
2. Plastic exchange includes the process
1) protein biosynthesis
2) RNA cleavage
3) breathing
4) glycolysis
3. A single apparatus for protein biosynthesis
1) endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes
2) mitochondria and cell center
3) chloroplasts and the Golgi complex
4) lysosomes and plasma membrane
4. The principle of complementarity (additionality) underlies the interaction
1) amino acids and the formation of the primary structure of the protein
2) nucleotides and the formation of a double-stranded DNA molecule
3) glucose and the formation of a cellulose polysaccharide molecule
4) glycerol and fatty acids and the formation of fat molecules
5. The role of the matrix in the synthesis of mRNA molecules is played by
1) polypeptide thread
2) plasma membrane
3) membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum
4) one of the chains of the DNA molecule
6. Determine the sequence of tRNA anticodons if the mRNA has removed information from the frag
DNA ment having the nucleotide sequence AGCTTAGCCT.
1) AUTTSAGUUA 2) AGTSUUAGTSU
3) TsGAATTSGA 4) TsGAUAGTSUTS
Test on the topic: "Viruses and phages"
Option 1
1. Viruses opened:
A Vinogradsky B Pavlov C Ivanovsky D Vernadsky
2. Cell structure Dont Have:
A blue-green algae (cyanoea)
B bacteria
In yeast
G viruses
3. The virus disrupts the activity of the host cell because:
A destroys the cell membrane
B cell loses the ability to reproduce
B destroys mitochondria in the host cell
The DNA of the phage carries out the synthesis of its own protein molecules.
4. Viruses multiply:
but only in the host cell
b yourself
in options a and b
g are not capable of reproduction.
5. What virus disrupts the human immune system?
and poliomyelitis
b smallpox
in the flu
d HIV
6. What forms of life occupy an intermediate position between living and non-living bodies
nature?
and viruses; b bacteria;
into lichens; g mushrooms.
c) a virus;
d) unicellular algae.
7. Viruses, penetrating into the host cell,
a) feed on ribosomes;
b) poison it with their waste products;
c) reproduce their genetic material;
d) settle in mitochondria.
8. The first protective reaction of human and animal cells to infection with a virus is
synthesis of special antiviral proteins that inhibit the development of the virus in this cell and
making neighbors immune to it. These proteins are called
and antigens
b antibiotics
into vaccines
g interferons
9. Viruses are made up of
and proteins and nucleic acids
b cellulose and proteins
in DNA and RNA
g nucleus and cytoplasm
10. Set the sequence of the bacteriophage life cycle.
A Embedding of bacteriophage DNA into the host cell
B Synthesis of viral DNA and proteins in a bacteriophage cell
Attachment of a bacteriophage to a bacterium
D penetration of a bacteriophage into a bacterial cell
D exit of the bacteriophage from the cell, infection of others
1 option
Methods of biological knowledge:
A - experiment; B - modeling; B is natural selection.
Basic properties of life:
B - immobility;
B - the ability to grow and develop.
Adaptation of living organisms to environmental changes:
A - .rhythm;
B - adaptation;
B - heredity.
A level represented by a huge variety of species and their populations:
A - molecular;
B - cellular;
B - population-species.
The components of this level are complexes of molecules chemical compounds and cell organelles:
A - atomic;
B - molecular;
B is cellular.
Intentional or accidental transfer of individuals or species to any country or region with new climatic and other natural conditions:
A - introduction; B - reproduction; B - induction.
_________________________________________________________________________
INTRODUCTION TO THE COURSE OF GENERAL BIOLOGY
Option 2
1. Methods of biological knowledge:
A - observation; B - comparison; B is the struggle for existence.
Basic properties of life:
B - metabolism and energy;
B - self-reproduction.
The ability to maintain the constancy of the internal environment and maintain its composition and properties regardless of changing living conditions:
A - variability;
B - discreteness;
B is heredity.
The level represented by the highest form of organization - the biosphere:
A - population-species;
B - biogeocenotic;
B - biospheric.
The components of this level are cells, tissues and organs:
A - molecular; B - cellular; B is organismic.
6. Among the named levels of organization of the living, remove the “extra”:
A - ionic;
B - molecular;
B is cellular.
7. Deliberate or accidental transfer of individuals or species to any country or
an area with new climatic and other natural conditions for them:
A - acclimatization; B - climate; B - bionics.
Finish the sentence: “Thanks to my knowledge of the basics of biology, I can…”
"ch 2-10"
BIOSPHERE STANDARD OF LIFE
1 option
All bodies and properties of inanimate nature (according to Vernadsky):
The energy function of living matter in the geological processes of the biosphere:
The transition from complex organic substances to the simplest living organisms was carried out ... (according to Oparin):
B - fats;
B - proteins.
By type of nutrition, the first organisms were mainly:
A - autotrophs; B - heterotrophs.
6. Reptile Rise:
A - Paleozoic;
B - Cenozoic;
B - Mesozoic.
Organisms that feed on ready-made organic substances:
A is the constant position of the Earth in space;
B - biological cycle of substances;
B - internal ordering of the ecosystem.
Explain when even human environmental activities can damage the biosphere.
___________________________________________
BIOSPHERE STANDARD OF LIFE
Option 2
1. The result of the joint activity of animate and inanimate nature (according to Vernadsky):
A - living matter; B - inert substance; B is a bio-inert substance.
Functions of living matter in the biosphere (according to Vernadsky):
B - the ability to the evolutionary process;
B - physical and chemical unity.
The destructive function of living matter in the geological processes of the biosphere:
A - the creation of free oxygen and its transition to ozone; release of free nitrogen, etc.
gases during the decomposition of living matter;
B - absorption of solar energy during photosynthesis, storage of energy in chemical bonds
organic compounds and its transfer through the food and decomposition chains;
B - decomposition of the substance and its involvement in the biological cycle.
The transition from complex organic substances to the simplest living organisms was carried out ... (according to Miller):
A - carbohydrates;
B - proteins.
In terms of their structure, the first organisms were mainly:
A - prokaryotes; B - eukaryotes.
6. Bloom of Angiosperms, Insects, Birds and Mammals:
A - Paleozoic;
B - Cenozoic;
B - Mesozoic.
7. Organisms that produce organic substances:
A - consumers; B - decomposers; B - producers.
Biosphere stability mechanisms:
A - Feedback;
B - the complexity of the ecosystem;
B - a huge variety of biological species.
Explain why agriculture and cattle breeding, which have become significant stages in the development of mankind, are now characterized as factors in violation of the stability of the biosphere..
Briefly describe the water cycle on the surface of the globe.
View document content
"ch 3-10"
1 option
1. A space homogeneous in terms of living conditions, occupied by certain types of living organisms is ...:
A - biogeocenosis;
B - biotope;
B - biosystem.
Organisms that create organic matter (plants):
B - consumers;
B - reducers.
The ecological niche is...
A method of obtaining food for organisms in which some organisms catch, kill and eat other organisms:
B is predation.
Lichen is...
A - symbiosis; B - mutualism; B - housing.
Useful neutral biotic bonds:
A - freeloading;
B - competition;
B - housing.
Mechanisms of stability of biogeocenoses:
A - living space;
B - struggle of species;
B - richness of the species composition.
Successions that begin with the settlement of exposed areas of the territory:
A - pioneer;
B - secondary;
B - primary.
A change that takes place under the influence of causes hidden within the biogeocenoses themselves is called:
A - catastrophic; B - successional; B is primary.
A - quarterly;
B - daily;
B - annual.
Biogeocenoses created by man are called:
A - natural;
B - unnatural;
B - cultural.
Environmental laws of nature management (according to B. Commoner):
A - everything is connected with everything;
B - everything has to go somewhere;
In - in nature, everything is free.
if the herbivorous silver carp was introduced into its stable community of “plants - crucian carp - pike”.
BIOGEOCENOTIC STANDARD OF LIFE
Option 2
1. The totality of the living population located in the biotope is ...:
A - biocenosis;
B - biogeocenosis;
B - biosystem.
Processors of biological products (animals, mushrooms):
B - consumers;
B - reducers.
The life form is...
A - the stable position of the species in the biogeocenosis with a certain capacity of the biotope;
B - adaptations expressing morphological similarity in unrelated species;
B - the ability of biogeocenosis to ensure normal life.
Method of nutrition through nutrients another organism:
B - predation;
B - mutualism.
Insects and plants are...
A - mutualism; B - symbiosis; B - predation.
Beneficial biotic bonds:
A - predation;
B - symbiosis;
Mechanisms of stability of biogeocenoses:
A - environment-forming properties of species;
B - poverty of species composition;
B - anthropogenic impact.
Successions that start after partial disruption of ecosystems:
A - secondary;
B - primary;
B is mature.
A change that occurs suddenly, for reasons alien to bigocenosis, is called:
A - catastrophic;
B - successional;
B - century.
There are ... changes in biogeocenoses:
A - daily;
B - seasonal;
B is cyclic.
Field biogeocenoses are called:
A - artificial;
B - natural;
B - agrobiocenoses.
Environmental laws of nature management (according to B. Commoner):
A - you have to pay for everything;
B - nature knows best;
In - in nature, nothing is connected.
Model the process of changes in the Pond ecosystem:
if crucian carp is completely caught from a stable community of “plants - crucian carp - pike”.
1 2 3 4 5 6
18. Set the sequence of the life cycle of an RNA-containing virus in a host cell:
1) dissolution of the cell membrane at the site of attachment of the virus;
2) embedding the DNA of the virus into the DNA of the host cell;
3) synthesis of viral DNA;
4) formation of new viruses;
5) attaching the virus with its processes to the cell membrane;
6) penetration of the virus RNA into the cell;
7) reverse transcription;
8) synthesis of viral proteins.
A B C D E F G
Choose two correct answers
19. Viruses are:
a) precellular life forms; b) the oldest eukaryotes; c) primitive bacteria; d) occupy an intermediate position between animate and inanimate nature; e) contain some non-membrane organelles.
20. Mandatory components of the virus are:
a) lipids; b) nucleic acids; c) proteins; d) polysaccharides; e) ATP.
21. Signs of organisms characteristic of non-cellular life forms:
a) food; b) the release of harmful waste products;
c) breathing; G) high degree changes in adaptability to the environment; e) heredity.
22. The following are not viral diseases: a) foot and mouth disease; b) syphilis; c) rubella; d) rabies; e) typhoid.
23. The main difference in the structure of the smallpox virus from the diphtheria bacillus is the absence of the virus:
a) proteins; b) DNA; c) genes; d) ribosome; e) cytoplasm.
46037504254500
Give a full answer
24. What is the name of the object shown in the figure? What is its meaning? Sign what is indicated in the figure by numbers.
ANSWERS to the test "Viruses"
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
c d b a d a b c a b c a c d c
16. 211212
17. VGABED
18. 51673284
19. ag
20. bv
21. where
22. bd
23. where
24. 1) Bacteriophage.
2) Destroys bacterial cells.
3) 1 - head; 2) nucleic acid; 3) ponytail; 4) basal plate with enzymes.